yaniece22 asked:


I purchased a house in 2008. In 2004, my husband wanted to purchase a rental property. We have never lived in it, it was purchased as a rental property and tenants occupy it right now. In 2005, he refinanced it and my credit was not good enough to go back onto the loan (it was not a FHA loan), so I was refinanced off. The home that we were actually living in never had my name on it. We moved and closed on new house with a FHA loan with only my name on it. My mortgage broker told me that if you haven’t had a home in 3 years, then you are eligible for the first time home buyers tax credit that will be given this year when doing your taxes. Is this true? Does the rental property count, even if it is within the 3 year window, if we never lived in it? I never claimed anything on my taxes for it, nor interest or first time home buyer program back then when I did my taxes during that year that my name was on it. Can someone help me out with this? Can I put down the first time home buyer credit on my taxes this year?

first time home buyer loan